Early Wittgenstein pre-empts the Later Wittgenstein
Intro to Wittgenstein, Introduction to..., Wittgenstein August 16th, 2007There is a theory that the early Wittgenstein had provided a sophisticated and subtle defence of religion. Particularly individual and private religious experience.
6.522 There are, indeed, things that cannot be put into words. They make themselves manifest. They are what is mystical.
The mystical is beyond words, quite probably ineffable. Wittgensteins theory of the mystical in the Tractatus is that the limits of what can be meaningfully said do not coincide with the limits of what can be thought. On the contrary there are things which ought not be said, or perhaps cannot be meaningfully said but which can nonetheless be shown or thought of, manifesting themselves in a non-linguistic manner.
Thus Wittgensteins view of religious experience, or personal (non-institutional) religion is very similar to the pragmatic approach of William James that concerns its analysis with “fruits not roots”.
The Tractatus explicitly rejects metaphysics as being meaningless. Wittgenstein consistently held this view, yet whilst defending the mystical which he insisted should remain unspoken of. The view of the Tractatus towards religion is that the more one attempts to elucidate religious/mystical experiences into words, the deeper one is entering into making metaphysical propositions, thus the more nonsense one is uttering.
The Logical Positivists, who were broadly speaking fans of the Tractatus, interpreted the anti-metaphysical nature of his work as the basis of an attack on religion. If religious doctrines are explained with reference to metaphysics, then non-empirical religious doctrines can be attacked as being meaningless and nonsensical. But Wittgensteins demarcation between the mystical (that can be known/shown but must remain unsaid) and the logical atomist approach that he championed (that what is said can be analytically de-constructed and atomic facts known) was actually an attempt to disengage from (for example) arguments concerning the existence/non-existence of God. Instead of attempting to solve the question he simply sidestepped it. The question is unresolved and dissolved. Because the experience of God is something that is mystical, something that cannot be spoken of, any attempt to prove or disprove God’s existence was equally meaningless and nonsense.
Wittgensteins theory on religion would appear to be very closely related to his personal experience. Religion is meaningful only in an existential way not in an intellectual way. Thus he attempts to shield it from the pitfalls of metaphysics (encouraging silence instead) and from the attacks of logical positivism.
The later Wittgenstein, as emerging from Philosophical Investigations maintains many of his earlier themes. Religion as an existential and private enterprise remains important to him, and likewise Metaphysics remains nonsense and should be discarded by Philosophy.
But the later Wittgenstein adds a technical distinction to the term nonsense, and seems to apply it towards metaphysics. Instead of nonsense, as in gobbledook or unintelligible rubbish, he begins to talk of non-sense as in not-sense. Here he begins to expound his language-games theory. Metaphysics instead of being meaningless nonsense, i.e. something that means nothing, becomes instead meaningful non-sense, i.e. something that means something outside of the sense language game.
Metaphysics is nonsense when judged by the criteria of the critico-rationalist language game. But it remains perfectly meaningful within the context of the metaphysics language game. The immunity from rational criticism that he once offered to mysticism now applies to other forms of language. The later Wittgenstein sought to analyse the content of these language games and no longer to judge their value. The key to this volte face is his rejection of the picture idea theory of words and his development of the ‘meaning=use’ theory. (More of which in the next post).

August 19th, 2007 at 7:45 pm
I think I can follow what you are saying. A broad observation on placing metaphysics in its own language game is that the game only exists in its particular form by agreement between the people discussing it. Or to speak plainer, it exists only in the minds of the participants. I admit and accept Wittgenstein’s theory as a way of understanding arguments and avoiding confusion, but it definitely does not justify jumping from “language game X” to belief in “X”. Agreeing on something really proves nothing – remember the moon and cheese discussion?
And I am doubtful if a language based theory can describe something which is “beyond words” or ineffable…
Also Wittgenstein’s theories might be empirical observations and so should be given the usual provisional status based on possibly incomplete observations.
AC1
August 20th, 2007 at 7:26 pm
1- To jump from language game x to believing x is of little or no importance to Wittgenstein as he is only interested in what is being said. But as a rule why should it not be justifiable to ‘jump’ from language game x to belief in x? To condemn common agreement as insufficient grounds for proof sounds like a value judgement, and as such infers that it has its roots in misunderstanding or in disagreement, suggesting therefore that such a judgement is a latent example of a different language game critiquing the rules of admissability and truth that are independent to each game.
In brief Wittgenstein is bordering on relativism (if not already proposing it) each game makes sense to its adherents and as such is not contingent on making sense to any other language game.
2- Wittgenstein was aware of the irony of attempting to verbalize the non-verbal. And at this point seems to propose do as I say not as I do. (Lifting up the ladder). And although attempting to be non-judgemental he still regarded metaphysical language (the attempt to verbalise the non-verbal, or the attempt to rationalise the non-rational) as nonsense (in both forms of his definition). He couldnt accept metaphysics but he wasnt going to let it be attacked.
3- Wittgensteins theory as empirical observations is one of the stronger arguments against him. He attempts various defences. Firstly he declares that what he is saying does not need to be said, it shows itself, but he pre-empts Feyerabend by saying that although he declares it obvious he thinks it needs to be pointed to again and again lest we forget it or ignore it. He doesnt want one language game to dominate over another. Ratoionalism condemning metaphysics (for example) because it doesnt conform to the rules of rationalism.
Secondly he tacitly accepts that he must be within a language game in order to describe other language games what is the best way to posit it, as a mystical insight into the matter or as an observational one?
Finally (though he never declares this himself) as he is interested in what is being said, how it is being said (and not whether statement x is true, valuable, dangerous, wonderful etc.) he is only attempting to point towards language games. Therefore the more we attempt to critique the theory by recourse to the rules of empiricism, the less we truly understand the relativistic nature of the theory.
In other words he is attempting to suggest that the language games theory as a whole cannot be refuted by reference to the principles of understanding elucidated by a particular language game itself. (Although by its nature that may be what the language game is programmed to do).
August 21st, 2007 at 5:46 pm
“But as a rule why should it not be justifiable to ‘jump’ from language game x to belief in x?”
Admittedly there is not a general rule I can think of, but the burden of proof is on people who say the jump is possible.
“To condemn common agreement as insufficient grounds for proof sounds like a value judgement…”
I didn’t condemn it exactly – I said it was an assumption made without any basis.
“suggesting therefore that such a judgement is a latent example of a different language game”
I am commenting on the theory of language games. To say I can’t comment on it because it is a different language game is equivalent to saying “you can’t discuss subject X because of X” (tautology).
“In other words he is attempting to suggest that the language games theory as a whole cannot be refuted by reference to the principles of understanding elucidated by a particular language game itself.”
This interpretation is therefore unfalsifiable? (yeah yeah it’s a different language game, I know!) Unfalsifiable theories can be criticized by argument ad absurdum. For example if we propose “language games exist (and are beyond disproof)” we can equally say “there is a teapot orbiting the sun but its near impossible to find”. Well, there is unlikely to be a celestial teapot – very unlikely. (I am trying to avoid overusing Occam’s razor here and to find alternative expressions of the idea!)
I should restate I accept the more empirical interpretation of Wittgenstein (as far as I understand it. i.e. no ladder discarding allowed). His theory permits understanding of language in the world that is. To go from is to ought statements is tricky.
AC1
August 21st, 2007 at 7:17 pm
No general rule, but the ‘burden of proof’ is upon those who say the jump is possible.
An assumption ‘without’ any basis.
The tautology You cant discuss x because of x.
A teapot orbiting the sun:-
The extreme response by a language games theorist, possibly best exemplified by Feyerabend and epistemological anarchy would say:
burden of proof, the need for an assumption to have a basis, and the argument ad absurdum are reliant upon methodologies that are not universal. They work, or have a relevance within the context of a language game but do not hold true across the language games.
The point about language games, meaning=use was part of Wittgensteins specific rebuttle of the celestial teapot. Religious language (for example) is a practise and not an experiment, therefore its referents are defined by how it is used.
August 21st, 2007 at 7:18 pm
more of which in the second post
August 21st, 2007 at 8:09 pm
“They work, or have a relevance within the context of a language game but do not hold true across the language games.”
Therefore if this theory has a basis that can be argued in language, this interpretation refutes itself. It’s justification is “reliant upon methodologies that are not universal”.
If it has no arguable justification and it’s just a metaphysical theory – it’s not very interesting to me…
AC1
August 21st, 2007 at 9:19 pm
Read part 2 just posted.
Justification? Is this not part of a non-universal method?
Is it of no interest because it cannot be rationally or empirically justified? Is this not then an exhibition of breathtaking language-game tyranny… sorry doesn’t adhere to the rules that I accept, therefore “it’s not very interesting to me”!
As quoted in my second post:
“An open exchange respects the partner whether he is an individual, or an entire culture while a rational exchange promises respect only within the framework of a rational debate. An open exchange has no organon though it may invent one, there is no logic, though forms of logic may emerge in its course.”
If it has no justification, or it is ‘just’ a metaphysical theory, or it is an assumption without a basis… are these not the ground rules for a ‘guided exchange’?
Does this not close all possibility for the meaningful exchange of ideas to anyone who is outside of the ‘method’ that is being applied? Is this not an ideological tyranny?
“Let us suppose, therefore, that the government is entirely at one with the people, and never thinks of exerting any power of coercion unless in agreement with what it conceives to be their voice. But I deny the right of the people to exercise such coercion, either by themselves or by their government. The power itself is illegitimate. The best government has no more title to it than the worst. It is as noxious, or more noxious, when exerted in accordance to public opinion, than when in opposition to it. If all mankind minus one, were of one opinion, and only one person were of ocntrary opinion, mankind would be no more justified in silencing that one person, than he, if he had the power would be justified in silencing mankind”. John Stuart Mill – On Liberty
As rational and as justified within the method of reason and empiricism as Richard Dawkins may be in opposing alternative medicine, astrology and so on, is it not an offence to liberty (the individuals right to choose), is not a cry for ideological tyranny to describe them in his new documentary as ‘the enemies of reason’ and ergo the enemies of the state (as I assume he would argue vociferously that astrology should not be taught at school alongside science?).
August 21st, 2007 at 10:02 pm
Just to clarify the last comment is:
in parts a reductio ad absurdum
in its entirety a relativist position
and is meant as a comment on ideological tyranny and/or liberation
it is not:
a personal comment
a demand for astrology to be taught in schools
a rejection of reason or rationality as tools (as long as it is recognised that they are not the only tools in the box).
August 21st, 2007 at 10:17 pm
“Justification? Is this not part of a non-universal method?”
I take this as stating that there is no “justification” (that I would accept). What can be proposed without evidence (or argument) can be dismissed without evidence. Should I just commit this argument to be “flames” as Hume recommends? (Don’t just effectively say “if X then X” again please!)
I admit that the theory might be self-validating, but that proves nothing. Well, all it says is ‘Theory X: “Theory X is correct”‘.
“Is this not then an exhibition of breathtaking language-game tyranny[?]“
You again are arguing X from assumption of X. (e.g. you are saying “your criticism of language games is invalid” because “language games exist”.) This is tautology.
On Richard Dawkins, it is all very well you saying all language games are equal, but we still need to choose how to allocate health budgets. Since all language games are “equal”, how does that help us?
I did see the end to this weeks “enemies of reason”. The name of the programme conjured in my mind an image of Dawkins writing a list with a heading “enemies”…
As Dawkins might say on postmodernism and language games:
Also Feyerabend might consider himself to be an “enemy of reason”? If you reject the primacy of reason as “tyranny”, then perhaps Dawkins’s label should be a badge of honour?
AC1
August 21st, 2007 at 10:41 pm
Or in other words:
AC1
August 22nd, 2007 at 5:02 pm
I think the first point is ‘evidence’ and ‘justification’ have different values and meanings with regards philosophy and science.
And the language games thesis would propose theory x is valid in propositional system x.
And there are no tautologies in the language game overview, it only becomes a tautology within the language game itself.
Actually Wittgenstein doesnt accept all language games as being equal, but all are at liberty* to be treated as such.
You talk about the need to allocate health budgets, indeed we would be in common agreement that it should not be left to the wrong language game. This is not a value judgement but a functional judgement, looking at the use of the game. (*re: the Mill quotation).
“Shouldnt games be entertaining”… sorry RD you failed yet again. As Wittgenstein asked is there one thing common to all games, is there something we can call the essence of game? No, that a game be entertaining is not essential in the meaning of the word, meaning=use!
Feyerabend is an enemy of establishment reason, of the method of reason, of rational supremacy. But remember from his quote, epistemological anarchy is anti-programme, and therefore defends all programmes so long as their limitations are acknowledged. In fact he would recoil at the idea of being proud for being anti-rationalist, he was horrified that he had to argue against rationalists, and other schools of thought. This was the greatest insult of all, that after Descartes method of doubt had presented us with the clear ‘knowledge’ that our knowledge is limited and spurious at best (non-existent at worst), we should then spend our time building up new towers of babel. Which indeed was the motivation for Wittgenstein to be so concerned about nonsense.
The key to language games, and the anti-method of Feyerabend is that method is non-progressive but restrictive.
August 22nd, 2007 at 8:10 pm
“I think the first point is ‘evidence’ and ‘justification’ have different values and meanings with regards philosophy and science.”
Hume was a philosopher wasn’t he?
But in a similar vein to Feyerabend’s thinking, George Bernard Shaw said that “The golden rule is that there are no golden rules”. I always liked that quote.
AC1
August 22nd, 2007 at 8:27 pm
Hume was a propagandist.
As is all philosophy, as indeed is every form of life/language game when expressed outwardly.
I thought you might bring that up, its worth considering is scientific philosophy a seperate language game that just bears family resemblances to other language games such as philosophy and science?
Nice G B Shaw quote.
Here is one from an online Wittgensteinian (name unknown) who paraphrases the Feyerabendian use of language games. And sums up what I am trying to say.
“you can’t criticize a form of life from an external standpoint, you can batter a form of life with your own, but criticism can find no puchase.”
A comparable quote can be found by Colonel Kurtz in Apocalypse Now (and I have been trying to find a way to inject it somehow and the above quote satisfied this need.)
“I’ve seen horrors … horrors that you’ve seen. But you have no right to call me a murderer. You have a right to kill me. You have a right to do that … but you have no right to judge me.”
Perhaps a less violent one could be:
“Have you ever thought about any real freedoms? Freedom from the opinions of others…even from the opinions of yourself?”
August 23rd, 2007 at 5:07 pm
NOTE to self: Insert usual objections here
blah blah blah tautology blah blah blah blah self refuting blah blah unwarrented assumptions blah blah blah
AC1
Got tired of repeating myself. Good quote though.
August 23rd, 2007 at 8:07 pm
see post elsewhere on If A then B, if B then A
And the distinction between observation and particpation.